"Signs associated with fentanyl toxicity include severe respiratory depression, seizures, hypotension, coma and death. In fatalities from fentanyl, blood concentrations are variable and have been reported as low as 3 ng/mL."
I cross-verified that assertion with this document, listing the therapeutic blood reference range as being from 1-3 ng/ML. While 11 is a long way off from the certainly-fatal toxic level of 34, it's a significant amount which would cause all manner of issues, as the reference note above indicates.
He also had THC and Methamphetamine in his system, but from what I see on the aforelinked reference chart, values of 42 ng/ML and 19 ng/ML respectively are trivial. It was clearly the Fentanyl which were the root of his problems.
Interestingly, he was also positive for Coronnnna. How will the Left reconcile that one? Anyone who had it, no matter how they'd actually died, had been counted as a "COVID" death, and used as a gun-point justification to not allow people to leave their homes. By that metric, didn't Floyd die from "COVID"?
As for physical injuries, the autopsy found no injuries to the neck, with only minor scrapes and bruises on other parts of the body. Again, about the neck, bold emphasis is mine: "No injuries of anterior muscles of neck or laryngeal structures."
There is one other thing I want to bring up, which I've been hearing people throw around: "two autopsies have found it was a homocide!" That is total disingenuous.
The toxicology report described it as a "homocide". All "homocide" means is "death by human"-- not necessarily criminal; if someone breaks into my house and I shoot them, that's "homocide in self-defense." The very next sentence in the toxicology report reads: "How injury occurred: Decedent experienced a cardiopulmonary arrest while being restrained by law enforcement officer(s)." So, a heart attack.
Just a bit down: "Manner of death is not a legal determination of culpability or intent..." Meaning, "homocide" was employed as a technical term, not a judgement.
Regarding the second "autopsy", the family hired a quack who said, "Yup, he died of asphyxiation." The evidence? Why, the initial video of course! No one should place any stock whatsoever in what that person had to say, versus the actual doctor who fully dissected the actual body, and who released their full report linked at the top of this post.
For a summary of the events which led to Floyd's death, with links to camera footage-- events which are fully inline with the superficial scrapes and bruises which the autopsy discovered, I might add-- check this previous post of mine.